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submitted 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago) by [email protected] to c/[email protected]

Obviously it was a good thing that it was banned, but I'm just wondering if it would technically be considered authoritarian.

As in, is any law that restricts people's freedom to do something (yes, even if it's done to also free other people from oppression as in that case, since it technically restricts the slave owner's freedom to own slaves), considered authoritarian, even if at the time that the law is passed, it's only a small section of people that are still wanting to do those things and forcibly having their legal ability to do them revoked?

Or would it only be considered authoritarian if a large part of society had their ability to do a particular thing taken away from them forcibly?

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[-] [email protected] 2 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago)

This is kind of the base paradox of chaos and faith. If God is the universe and everything, and God is "right", then that makes good and evil equal. It's a paradox people don't think of when it comes to sovereignty and freedom. Both those things mean you would need to fight for survival, in turn one could not be "free" by modern governing terms. You get your "freedom" but that means you aren't going to have the military killing for you or your subsidized help. True freedom is not utopia. True freedom is a life of war and survival.

[-] [email protected] 1 points 1 month ago

Maybe. I guess authoritarianism is good sometimes.

[-] [email protected] 1 points 1 month ago

I think you should pause to interrogate the statement “freedom to own slaves.” What do you think ownership is? Who enforces it?

If passing a law that takes away ownership is “authoritarian” in your eyes, what about the enforcement of ownership? Doesn’t the state enforcing property rights also take away certain freedoms? Not just with the obvious example of slavery, but in general.

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this post was submitted on 18 May 2024
-57 points (26.1% liked)

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